boeing 777
1. Access panel 543DB is
a. panel 3DB in zone 54
b. the 4th panel in zone 54
c. –
2. How many ARINC 629 in Boeing 777
a. 7
b. 11
c. 4
3. How can u identify fibre optic cable
a. outer jacket is purple
b. outer jacket is blue
c. –
4. Lower cargo compartment has 3 doors, which is
a. the forward cargo is same size with aft cargo door
b. the forward cargo is bigger than aft cargo door
c. the forward cargo is smaller than aft cargo door
5. Boeing 777 has 8 zones, zone 300 is
a. Upper fuselage
b. lower fuselage
c. Empennage
6. To turn ON the standby power on unpowered aircraft
a. push battery switch to ON
b. standby power to batt and batt switch to ON
c. –
7. To load the data into the LRU, we use
a. CDU
b. MAT/PMAT
c. MFD
8. Software for the CMCF is in?
a. Right AIMS cabinet
b. Left AIMS cabinet
c. Both AIMS cabinet
9. To load the main terminal function (MTF) into MAT
a. select the data load from extended menu
b. type load MTF on the MAT keyboard
c. select the self load button on MAT ______________
10. The type of CMCS ground test contains all adjustment specification and tolerance to maintain system or unit at maximum efficiency
a. System test
b. Operational test
c. Bite test
11. What component controlled the backup generator (BUG)?
a. BPCU
b. ELMS
c. Backup generator converter
12. Backup generator converter automatically test the BUG immediately after
a. power transfer
b. –
c. engine start
13. EEU + ELMS at
a. power management panel
14. Where is the RATgenerator location?
a. Rat strut R/H wing to body fairing
15. The airplane on the ground, no electrical power, when u push the batt switch on, wht receives power?
a. batt bus
b. batt #2 bus
c. Captain flight instrument bus
16. The CMCS notes and health information is stored in the
a. airline modifiable information
b. –
c. operational programme software
17. When does a flight leg transition usually occur?
a. power on
b. engine start
c. take off
18. Ground test switch has power interface to
a. testing function of MAT
b. PMAT in the MEC
c. CMCS
19. Which of the following pages can be printed in the cockpit printer?
a. maintenance pages
b. synoptic pages
c. –
20. How many WES channel must detect warning/alert ?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
21. Which line replaceable module (LRM) in the AIMS cabinet transmit video signal to display unit (DU)
a. CPM/GG
22. CMCF software is in which of these AIMS cabinet?
a. CPM COMM
23. The purposes of AIMS cabinet CPM/COMM, CPM/GG is to do calculation for the
a. PFCS
b. PDS
c. AMCS
24. MFD format can show in which display unit
a. upper center
b. right inboard
c. right outboard
25. ND format can show at how many location at the same time
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
26. The ground crew call from the flight deck can be made from?
a. center CDU on the P8 panel
27. The primary airplane jacking point
a. 1 at L/E wing root each and aft fuselage
28. The RAT can be deployed manually/automatically, it is used to provide backup
a. electrical
b. hydraulic
c. both
29. The E7 rack in the cabin contain the following component
a. CVR, FDR and APUC
30. Which documents do you use to get maintenance practices to do maintenance on a airplane?
a. AMM part 2
31. You erase latch status message from the
a. maintenance task maintenance page
b. engine exceedence maintenance page
32. Before you install the new display unit in the center lower position, you must.
a. turn display unit 90 degrees
b. move throttle lever
c. turn display unit 180 degrees
33. EICAS is in the limited mode of operational, on the DSP which switches are still active
a. ELEC
b. ELEC, HYD, ….
c. ENG, AIR, FUEL
34. To enable maintenance pages menu on MFD, you must use which control to use on the CDU menu.
a. line select key (LSK) 1R on CDU
b. line select key (LSK) 1R on center CDU only
c. line select key (LSK) 5R at any CDU
35. which display show the dynamic position of moveable flight surfaces?
a. FLT CTRL synoptic
36. engine over temperature profile show in which pages
a. performance maintenance pages
b. EPCS maintenance pages
c. engine exceedence maintenance pages
37. There are 15 status message, only 11 are display. How do you see the others?
a. use CNCL/RECALL switchon the DSP
b. use maintenance page switch on CDU
c. use status page on the DSP
38. You can use the ALT EFIS control function on the same CDU
a. –
b. at any time
c. In the air only
39. Which component do you use to control the maintenance pages and MFD
a. CDU and CCD
40. The related display unit failed. Which display can switch automatically?
a. PFD and EICAS
41. For most passenger cabin light, set light by
a. any of the 3 cabin area CSCP ( CACP )
42. which CMCS menu do you use to do a data load?
a. –
b. other function
c. extended maint
43. You are working on a fault that did not cause a flight deck effect. Where can you find information on the MAT.
a. existing FDE
b. present leg faults
c. special function
44. Which of the following is FDE?
a. a fault reported by flight crew
b. –
c. an EFIS flag or EICAS message
45. When do you do a test on emergency lights. The light stays on how long?
a. 5 minutes
b. 60 seconds
c. a minimum of 15 minutes
46. The primary external power system has a fault. To supply a secondary power to the airplane, you must
a. turn the batt switch to ON position
47. Primary external power connected to and not in use light is on. There is primary external power on the
a. left main a/c bus
b. ground handling a/c bus
c. right main a/c bus
48. an engine running, an IDG oil is become too hot. What protects the IDG
a. a thermal plug in the IDG plug melts and the drive disconnect
49. If BUG has too much oil ( overserviced ), the electrical maintenance page oil level shows
a. service
50. What conditions tells you that IDG has a clog oil filter
a. electrical maintenance page 1 shows service
777 avionic
Review PH6 77-200 Avionics Phase
· What is the name of the system that is used to convert from 429 to 629?
System card file ( ASG )
There are two systems card files in the airplane, left and right.
The system card files contain:
* Power supply cards (4 in each)
* ARINC signal gateway (ASG) cards (2 in each)
* ARINC 429 system cards (8 in Left)
* ARINC 429 system cards (9 in Right).
Purpose
ARINC 629 signal gateway (ASG) cards change data format
between ARINC 429 and ARINC 629. The ASG cards move data
between the LRU interface cards in the left and right systems
card files and the left and right systems ARINC 629 buses. The
ASG cards also move data between the forward and aft cargo
smoke detectors and the left and right systems ARINC 629
buses.
· How many ASG card files?
2 card files left and right.
A left and right system cardfile integrate many systems cards.
The systems cardfiles have many data inputs and outputs. The
left and right system cardfiles communicate on the left and right
systems ARINC 629 buses.
Both systems cardfiles have two ARINC signal gateway (ASG)
cards. One ASG card in each cardfile connects to the left ARINC
629 bus and one card in each cardfile connects to the right
ARINC bus.
· What is the system that directly supplies data to ASG card?
Smoke detector
The ASG cards also move data between the forward and aft cargo
smoke detectors and the left and right systems ARINC 629 buses.
· What is the power supply for the card file?
28volt DC
· In which card file is the APU fire detection card file fitted?
Left
· Where is the location of the card file?
MEC left tunnel and right tunnel
· Are the signal gateway cards interchangeable?
Yes
· If you want to set the time at the clock to your preference, which do you select?
Manual
· UTC time comes from?
AIMS from GPSS or MMR
· The sweep second hand reads in?
Seconds
· What is the maximum measured that the ET can show?
99 hours 59 minutes
· If the selector is in manual and the clock just powered up, what Is the reading?
00
· Clock requires what power supply?
28V DC
· What switch is duplicated in the pilot’s clock?
Chronograph switch
· Flight data recorder requires what software in aims?
DFDAF
· DFDAF resides in which AIMS?
Both
· What is the name of the CPM that hosts DFDAF?
CPM/COMM
· What signal is used by DFDR?
ARINC 717
· Location of DFDR?
E7
· When does DFDR gets power?
As soon as engine starts on ground
· What is the memory storage assembly in DFDR called?
CSMU (crash survivable memory unit)
· What is the device that gives out homing signal?
ULD (underwater locating device)
· What is the life of ULD?
30 days if submerged in water or 6 years if it’s not used
· What triggers the ULD to start?
Water operated switch
· Which AIMS is ACMS located?
Left AIMS only
· What are the system the ACMS collects data from?
ECS, APU and both engines
· Where is the TCW displayed?
On the PFD
· Highest TCW message is?
WIND SHEAR
· What parameter does the compass rose display?
Heading
· Where is the compass rose located?
Bottom of the PFD
· What display is located at extreme right of PFD?
VSI
· Which ND mode cannot be used centered display?
Plan mode
· During landing, which mode does the pilot usually select?
Approach
· Which cabin services system component is used by cabin attendants to communicate with each other?
Cabin interphone system (CIS)
· What control will the cabin attendants use to turn on/off the cabin light?
CSCP or CACP
· How many channels are recorded in CVR?
4
· How many minutes is used to record?
120 minutes
· Where can an external mic be placed to listen to the cockpit?
At P40
· Power supply for CVR?
115V AC
·
777 Phase 6 Avionics
FDR 31-31-00
1. 25 hours recording time
2. Uses ARINC 717
3. Location at aft side galley (E7)
4. Left AIMS cabinet is master; meaning data sent to the FDR comes from here
5. Battery life is 6 years. After 6 years have to remove the battery.
ACMS 31-35-00
1. Can downlink to satcom or EICAS
2. Can be downloaded to diskette
3. Analyses aircraft performance
4. ACMS software is only on left AIMS cabinet
PDS 31-61-00
· Consist of EFIS and EICAS.
Voice Recorder 23-71-00
· Located at E7 rack
· Power for CVR is 115VAC left transfer bus
· Keeps the last 120 minutes of audio
· Recording medium is solid state
Electronic Flight Bag 46-11-00
· Display unit is touch sensitive
· But also has soft keys at the sides just in case touch screen is ineffective
· Uses 2 electronic units (EU) instead of CPM/GG
· The video function shows the security camera feed outside the cockpit
· EU has two operating system (OS)
· When power is supplied to EU, the DU (display unit) gets it as well
· Power button will only turn off the backlight, not the EU
Flight Deck Entry Video Surveillance System 27-75-00
· 3 cameras; cockpit door, left galley and right galley
· Cameras are of infra-red type
· Power supply to the CIU comes from 120VAC and the camera is 12VDC
Static and Total Air System 34-11-00
· Standby airspeed indicator requires pitot and static
· Standby altimeter requires static port only
· Standby air data module converts the signal to ARINC 429
· Pitot-static/Air Data Standby Instruments are interchangeable
· The standby airspeed indicator and the standby altimeter is interchangeable. The program pin determines the function
· Pitot probe heating is 115VAC on ground (engines running) and 200VAC in flight
A
Monday 2010-09-06
1. Purposes of ILS..provide lateral and vertical guidance
2 . Boxes involve? – ils receiver ( MMR – the latest )
3. Where are the antenna located –radome – localizer & glideslope, Lnding gear door, stabilizer
4. Marker beacon - provide guidance for straight line, alternate means of navigation
5. Box of marker beacon – vor marker beaon receiver, left receiver
6. Radio altimeter – measure distance ( absolute height up -20 to 2500 ft ) up 2500 no indication
7. Where is the indication for radio altitude – shows on pfd ( at btm right)
8. Radio altitide decision height – 999
9. Weather radar - looking for clouds formation, windshear detection during take off and landing, terrain
10. weather radar indication on – ND, what pages available for weather radar indication- 4 pages= expan
11. the ranged of weather radar – 320 nm
12. how do u switch on wether radar- efis control panel
13. the new feature of wether radar- multiscan
14. if weather radar is on, terrain is more important
15. alternate way to selecet weather radar- CDU
16. TCAS- avoid collision between 2 ac by giving warning and also create awereness of a around him
17.works in conjuction with atc
18. TCAS works in conjuction with mode s transponder
B 777 Flight control
FLIGHT CONTROL QUESTIONS.
1. PFCS mode?
a. normal, secondary, direct
Normal mode operates when the necessary data are available for the PFCs and the ACEs. All the control laws, protection functions, and the AFDCs operate.
When the PFCS detects the loss of important air and attitude data, the PFCS operation changes to secondary mode. The PFCs and the ACEs operate but the PFC control laws and
protection functions downgrade. The autopilot cannot operate in secondary mode.
In direct mode, the PFCs are not used. The ACEs set the position of the control surfaces in direct response to analog pilot control inputs.
2. Purpose of PFC DISC switch is?
a. Reset PFCS to highest available mode
The PFC disconnect switch lets the pilot select the direct mode of operation.The pilots can manually switch the ACE to the direct mode. The PFC disconnect switch commands all ACEs to the direct mode.
3.The purpose of Backdrive actuators?
a. Drive control column to represents AFDC commands
The PFCs also calculate wheel backdrive commands. The PFCs send these commands to the AFDCs, which calculate control wheel movement commands for the backdrive actuator. The backdrive actuator moves the wheels the same amount as the pilot would move them manually for the same surface movement. The flight crew can override the autopilot through the use of enough force on the wheel to overcome the backdrive actuator.
4. If primary and secondary powers are not available to PFCS PSA, hot battery bus will supply?
a. Left and Center PSA
The left and center PSAs receive backup power from the hot battery bus.The right PSA has no backup power.
5. Feel and centering mechanism is attached to
a. Left shaft assembly
The feel and centering mechanism is at the bottom of the left shaft assembly. The aileron trim actuator connects directly to the feel and centering mechanism.
6. Wheel cable drum on each shaft assembly is connected via?
a. Upper force limiter
The wheel cable drums transmit the wheel cable motion to the force transducer and upper force limiter. The upper force limiter attaches directly to the two wheel cable drums.
7. How many position transducer(s) can be found on each shaft?
a. 3 each
The six wheel position transducers (total) measure the position of the control wheels. The transducers send analog electrical signals to the ACEs.
8. The landing attitude modification (LAM) logic will
a. cause the flaps to go to higher setting
The landing attitude modification (LAM) logic decreases the flaperon droop when the airplane is in an overspeed approach with flaps at the 25-unit or 30-unit position. The PFC calculates the reduction of flaperon droop proportionally to the overspeed increment. Full flaperon droop removal occurs when the airspeed is 20 knots more than the approach landing speed shown in the airplane flight manual.
When the LAM logic is active, it reduces wing lift and causes an increase in angle-of-attack. This increases the nose gear ground clearance.
9. Aileron lock out in normal mode occurs depends on?
a. depending on the altitude and computed airspeed.
On the ground and during flight below cruise speed, the ailerons and flaperons are fully operational. At cruise speed, the ailerons fair to the wing surface and lock out. The flaperons supply roll control.
10. The bank angle protection
a. starts at a bank angle of 35 degrees
The BAP function supplies a control wheel force cue to the pilot when the bank angle is more than 35 degrees
11. The purpose of modal suppression function?
a. reduces the forward and aft body lateral movements
12. The purpose of the TAC function is to?
a. move the rudder to compensate for asymmetric thrust
When the thrust asymmetry compensation (TAC) switch on the P5 panel is in the AUTO position, the PFCs automatically control the rudder trim. This control is to make allowance for asymmetrical thrust from the engines. The TAC function does not operate when the TAC switch is in the OFF position. The manual trim cancel switch does not remove any rudder trimcaused by TAC.
13. The B777 elevators are made from
a. lightweight composite material structure
The elevators are light weight composite material structures.The skin is reinforced graphite/epoxy bonded to a core of Nomex honeycomb.
14. In the B777 rudder system, the normal pressure for the rudder operation in flight is
a. reduced pressure of 1910 psi
The pressure reducer solenoid valve commands the pressure reducer valve to decrease the hydraulic pressure to 1910 psi. Reduced pressure on the actuator decreases the probability of leak and fatigue loads during normal operation.
15. The rudder pedal position is measured by
a. 4 pedal transducers
The flight crew uses two conventional rudder pedals to control yaw.Four rudder pedal position transducers change the flight crew rudder pedal commands to analog electrical signals. These signals go to the four actuator control electronics (ACEs). TheACEs change the signals to digital format and send them to the
three primary flight computers (PFCs) through the flight controls ARINC 629 buses.16.
17. STCM receive command from
a. ACE and alternate pitch trim levers
Two guarded cutout switches on the aisle stand control hydraulic shutoff valves on the stabilizer trim control modules (STCMs). When the pilot moves the switches to the cutout position, hydraulic pressure is shut off to the hydraulic motors.
Two stabilizer trim control modules (STCMs) receive commands from the ACEs and the alternate pitch trim levers to control the hydraulic pressure to the motors and brakes.
18. How many mode of elevator PCU?
a. 3
mode selector valve = Normal, Bypass, Blocking.
19. how many horizontal stabilizer speed have?
a.4
Two hydraulic motors with two speeds move the horizontal stabilizer through a jackscrew mechanism. Four rates of horizontal stabilizer movement are available.
20. Compliance spring is incorporated in
a. elevator mechanism
There is a force transducer on each elevator torque tube. The force transducer attaches to the compliance spring at the aft end, and to the elevator feel unit connecting rod at the forward end.
21. Travel limit mechanism is incorporated in
a. alternate trim
When the horizontal stabilizer is operated from the alternate pitch trim levers, the travel limit drum assembly stops the stabilizer at the up and down limits. These limits prevent contact between the stabilizer ballnut and the ballscrew stops.
22. Aileron flight control PCU has a null LVDT. This is for
– rigging the PCU
The actuator piston also has a null LVDT to adjust the null position of the actuator piston LVDT
during adjustment of the control surface.
23. STCM component that maintenance personnel use to do a test of the operation of stabilizer hydraulic brake is called?
a. brake bypass valve
Maintenance personnel use the brake bypass valve to periodically test the operation of the hydraulic brake. When you push on the brake bypass valve button, the valve shuts off hydraulic pressure to the brake. While you hold the button, you verify that the brake stops and holds the hydraulic motor. When released, a spring moves the brake bypass valve back to the open position.
24. Elevator system is given?
a. a variable feel
The PFCs use data from the ADIRU to calculate elevator feel commands. The feel command goes through the ACE to the left and right feel actuators on the elevator feel units. The feel actuators supply to the column a variable feel based on airspeed.
25. Servo loop function is done b?
a. ACE
The ACE contains a servo loop circuit to produce the command signals for the PCUs.
26. When the aircraft is on the air, which SOVs can be closed?
a.Only L and R SOV can be close
When 28v dc power is available, the flight control SOVs for the left and right systems can operate in the air or on the ground. The flight control SOVs for the center system can operate only on the ground.
27. At specified times Actuator confidence test and ACE monitor test must be done through MAT. The result of the test will appear at?
a.Maintenance task maintenance page
It is necessary to do the actuator confidence test (ACT) and the ACE monitor test (AMT) at specified times. Use the MAT to do these tests. The status of these tests shows on the maintenance task maintenance page.
28. In aileron sys the lost motion device which is attached to First officer shaft assembly is activated when lost motion is?
a. 2.9 degrees in either direction
The right drum is bearing mounted on the right shaft assembly. The right drum has a peg on the bottom side which is part of the lost motion device. If there is a failure, the lost motion device lets the right drum connect to the right shaft assembly after a control wheel rotation of 2.9 degrees in either direction.
29. Captain drum movement is transferred to the left shaft assembly through?
a. Wheel force transducer
The wheel force transducer is on the left shaft assembly, between the flight deck floor and the nose gear wheel well.
30. Spoiler 4 and 11 mechanisms are connected to?
a. Right shaft
31. The commands to decrease force fight are generated in the
a. PFCs
The signal also goes to the PFCs for force fight equalization.
32. Elevator offload function?
a. moves the stabilizer so that the elevator returns to neutral.
The elevator off-load function automatically sets the position of the stabilizer during manual flight or in autoflight. In this mode, the PFCs monitor elevator deflection and transfer pitch changes to the stabilizer. Once the stabilizer goes to its commanded
position, the elevator moves to neutral.
33. The horizontal stabilizers alternate operation is carried out by
a. levers in the cockpit
The alternate pitch trim levers give the pilots mechanical control of pitch trim. The forward quadrant assembly transmits the movement from the levers to the control cables.
34. Slat skew detection system?
a. monitors all slats except 1 and 14
The slat skew detection system monitors the relative position of all the slats except for slats 1 and 14.
35. How many positions does Krueger flap has?
a. krueger flap has 2 positions
The krueger flap has two positions: retracted and extended. It moves to the extended position when the slats are in the sealed or gapped positions. It moves to the retracted position when the slats are at the up position.
36. Flap/slat priority valve function is?
a. restrict the flow to the flap/slat if the system pressure is low.
The flap/slat priority valve controls the amount of hydraulic flow to the flap and slat primary control valves. The flap/slat priority valve gives priority of hydraulic power to the primary flight control system (PFCS) over the HLCS.
37. At flap lever position UP and 1 the position of the flap in Primary mode is?
a. UP
38. The secondary mode of flap/slat is not allowed on ground with engine shutdown. How to enable this mode for maintenance checks?
a. override this inhibit function by using MAT
39. EICAS caution message PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS appears when?
a. ACE in direct mode
The EICAS caution message PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS shows that all the ACEs that have power are in the direct mode and the PFC is not in the hydraulic OFF self-test mode. The message shows when the PFC disconnect switch is in the DISC position.
40. When maintenance personnel do a check on PFCS components how many flight control maintenance page can be view?
a.3
41. Normal movement of captain shaft assembly is measured by?
a.Wheel position transducer
42. Lost motion device attach to L shaft assembly activated when control wheel rotation is?
a.7.8 degrees in either direction
The left drum has an additional attachment point for the wheel force transducer. The left drum is bearing mounted on a sleeve which is spline mounted on the left shaft assembly. If there is a failure, the sleeve and left drum can connect through a lost motion device. The lost motion device permits connection after a control wheel rotation of 7.8 degrees in either direction
43. Aileron system backdrive actuator attach to?
a.R and L shaft assemblies
44. Roll trim actuator authority on control wheel rotation is?
a.30o in either direction
45. On a stationary aircraft, when the power of the engine is increased to take off thrust the flaperon?
a. droop under its own weight
READ MORE
1. PFCS mode?
a. normal, secondary, direct
Normal mode operates when the necessary data are available for the PFCs and the ACEs. All the control laws, protection functions, and the AFDCs operate.
When the PFCS detects the loss of important air and attitude data, the PFCS operation changes to secondary mode. The PFCs and the ACEs operate but the PFC control laws and
protection functions downgrade. The autopilot cannot operate in secondary mode.
In direct mode, the PFCs are not used. The ACEs set the position of the control surfaces in direct response to analog pilot control inputs.
2. Purpose of PFC DISC switch is?
a. Reset PFCS to highest available mode
The PFC disconnect switch lets the pilot select the direct mode of operation.The pilots can manually switch the ACE to the direct mode. The PFC disconnect switch commands all ACEs to the direct mode.
3.The purpose of Backdrive actuators?
a. Drive control column to represents AFDC commands
The PFCs also calculate wheel backdrive commands. The PFCs send these commands to the AFDCs, which calculate control wheel movement commands for the backdrive actuator. The backdrive actuator moves the wheels the same amount as the pilot would move them manually for the same surface movement. The flight crew can override the autopilot through the use of enough force on the wheel to overcome the backdrive actuator.
4. If primary and secondary powers are not available to PFCS PSA, hot battery bus will supply?
a. Left and Center PSA
The left and center PSAs receive backup power from the hot battery bus.The right PSA has no backup power.
5. Feel and centering mechanism is attached to
a. Left shaft assembly
The feel and centering mechanism is at the bottom of the left shaft assembly. The aileron trim actuator connects directly to the feel and centering mechanism.
6. Wheel cable drum on each shaft assembly is connected via?
a. Upper force limiter
The wheel cable drums transmit the wheel cable motion to the force transducer and upper force limiter. The upper force limiter attaches directly to the two wheel cable drums.
7. How many position transducer(s) can be found on each shaft?
a. 3 each
The six wheel position transducers (total) measure the position of the control wheels. The transducers send analog electrical signals to the ACEs.
8. The landing attitude modification (LAM) logic will
a. cause the flaps to go to higher setting
The landing attitude modification (LAM) logic decreases the flaperon droop when the airplane is in an overspeed approach with flaps at the 25-unit or 30-unit position. The PFC calculates the reduction of flaperon droop proportionally to the overspeed increment. Full flaperon droop removal occurs when the airspeed is 20 knots more than the approach landing speed shown in the airplane flight manual.
When the LAM logic is active, it reduces wing lift and causes an increase in angle-of-attack. This increases the nose gear ground clearance.
9. Aileron lock out in normal mode occurs depends on?
a. depending on the altitude and computed airspeed.
On the ground and during flight below cruise speed, the ailerons and flaperons are fully operational. At cruise speed, the ailerons fair to the wing surface and lock out. The flaperons supply roll control.
10. The bank angle protection
a. starts at a bank angle of 35 degrees
The BAP function supplies a control wheel force cue to the pilot when the bank angle is more than 35 degrees
11. The purpose of modal suppression function?
a. reduces the forward and aft body lateral movements
12. The purpose of the TAC function is to?
a. move the rudder to compensate for asymmetric thrust
When the thrust asymmetry compensation (TAC) switch on the P5 panel is in the AUTO position, the PFCs automatically control the rudder trim. This control is to make allowance for asymmetrical thrust from the engines. The TAC function does not operate when the TAC switch is in the OFF position. The manual trim cancel switch does not remove any rudder trimcaused by TAC.
13. The B777 elevators are made from
a. lightweight composite material structure
The elevators are light weight composite material structures.The skin is reinforced graphite/epoxy bonded to a core of Nomex honeycomb.
14. In the B777 rudder system, the normal pressure for the rudder operation in flight is
a. reduced pressure of 1910 psi
The pressure reducer solenoid valve commands the pressure reducer valve to decrease the hydraulic pressure to 1910 psi. Reduced pressure on the actuator decreases the probability of leak and fatigue loads during normal operation.
15. The rudder pedal position is measured by
a. 4 pedal transducers
The flight crew uses two conventional rudder pedals to control yaw.Four rudder pedal position transducers change the flight crew rudder pedal commands to analog electrical signals. These signals go to the four actuator control electronics (ACEs). TheACEs change the signals to digital format and send them to the
three primary flight computers (PFCs) through the flight controls ARINC 629 buses.16.
17. STCM receive command from
a. ACE and alternate pitch trim levers
Two guarded cutout switches on the aisle stand control hydraulic shutoff valves on the stabilizer trim control modules (STCMs). When the pilot moves the switches to the cutout position, hydraulic pressure is shut off to the hydraulic motors.
Two stabilizer trim control modules (STCMs) receive commands from the ACEs and the alternate pitch trim levers to control the hydraulic pressure to the motors and brakes.
18. How many mode of elevator PCU?
a. 3
mode selector valve = Normal, Bypass, Blocking.
19. how many horizontal stabilizer speed have?
a.4
Two hydraulic motors with two speeds move the horizontal stabilizer through a jackscrew mechanism. Four rates of horizontal stabilizer movement are available.
20. Compliance spring is incorporated in
a. elevator mechanism
There is a force transducer on each elevator torque tube. The force transducer attaches to the compliance spring at the aft end, and to the elevator feel unit connecting rod at the forward end.
21. Travel limit mechanism is incorporated in
a. alternate trim
When the horizontal stabilizer is operated from the alternate pitch trim levers, the travel limit drum assembly stops the stabilizer at the up and down limits. These limits prevent contact between the stabilizer ballnut and the ballscrew stops.
22. Aileron flight control PCU has a null LVDT. This is for
– rigging the PCU
The actuator piston also has a null LVDT to adjust the null position of the actuator piston LVDT
during adjustment of the control surface.
23. STCM component that maintenance personnel use to do a test of the operation of stabilizer hydraulic brake is called?
a. brake bypass valve
Maintenance personnel use the brake bypass valve to periodically test the operation of the hydraulic brake. When you push on the brake bypass valve button, the valve shuts off hydraulic pressure to the brake. While you hold the button, you verify that the brake stops and holds the hydraulic motor. When released, a spring moves the brake bypass valve back to the open position.
24. Elevator system is given?
a. a variable feel
The PFCs use data from the ADIRU to calculate elevator feel commands. The feel command goes through the ACE to the left and right feel actuators on the elevator feel units. The feel actuators supply to the column a variable feel based on airspeed.
25. Servo loop function is done b?
a. ACE
The ACE contains a servo loop circuit to produce the command signals for the PCUs.
26. When the aircraft is on the air, which SOVs can be closed?
a.Only L and R SOV can be close
When 28v dc power is available, the flight control SOVs for the left and right systems can operate in the air or on the ground. The flight control SOVs for the center system can operate only on the ground.
27. At specified times Actuator confidence test and ACE monitor test must be done through MAT. The result of the test will appear at?
a.Maintenance task maintenance page
It is necessary to do the actuator confidence test (ACT) and the ACE monitor test (AMT) at specified times. Use the MAT to do these tests. The status of these tests shows on the maintenance task maintenance page.
28. In aileron sys the lost motion device which is attached to First officer shaft assembly is activated when lost motion is?
a. 2.9 degrees in either direction
The right drum is bearing mounted on the right shaft assembly. The right drum has a peg on the bottom side which is part of the lost motion device. If there is a failure, the lost motion device lets the right drum connect to the right shaft assembly after a control wheel rotation of 2.9 degrees in either direction.
29. Captain drum movement is transferred to the left shaft assembly through?
a. Wheel force transducer
The wheel force transducer is on the left shaft assembly, between the flight deck floor and the nose gear wheel well.
30. Spoiler 4 and 11 mechanisms are connected to?
a. Right shaft
31. The commands to decrease force fight are generated in the
a. PFCs
The signal also goes to the PFCs for force fight equalization.
32. Elevator offload function?
a. moves the stabilizer so that the elevator returns to neutral.
The elevator off-load function automatically sets the position of the stabilizer during manual flight or in autoflight. In this mode, the PFCs monitor elevator deflection and transfer pitch changes to the stabilizer. Once the stabilizer goes to its commanded
position, the elevator moves to neutral.
33. The horizontal stabilizers alternate operation is carried out by
a. levers in the cockpit
The alternate pitch trim levers give the pilots mechanical control of pitch trim. The forward quadrant assembly transmits the movement from the levers to the control cables.
34. Slat skew detection system?
a. monitors all slats except 1 and 14
The slat skew detection system monitors the relative position of all the slats except for slats 1 and 14.
35. How many positions does Krueger flap has?
a. krueger flap has 2 positions
The krueger flap has two positions: retracted and extended. It moves to the extended position when the slats are in the sealed or gapped positions. It moves to the retracted position when the slats are at the up position.
36. Flap/slat priority valve function is?
a. restrict the flow to the flap/slat if the system pressure is low.
The flap/slat priority valve controls the amount of hydraulic flow to the flap and slat primary control valves. The flap/slat priority valve gives priority of hydraulic power to the primary flight control system (PFCS) over the HLCS.
37. At flap lever position UP and 1 the position of the flap in Primary mode is?
a. UP
38. The secondary mode of flap/slat is not allowed on ground with engine shutdown. How to enable this mode for maintenance checks?
a. override this inhibit function by using MAT
39. EICAS caution message PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS appears when?
a. ACE in direct mode
The EICAS caution message PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS shows that all the ACEs that have power are in the direct mode and the PFC is not in the hydraulic OFF self-test mode. The message shows when the PFC disconnect switch is in the DISC position.
40. When maintenance personnel do a check on PFCS components how many flight control maintenance page can be view?
a.3
41. Normal movement of captain shaft assembly is measured by?
a.Wheel position transducer
42. Lost motion device attach to L shaft assembly activated when control wheel rotation is?
a.7.8 degrees in either direction
The left drum has an additional attachment point for the wheel force transducer. The left drum is bearing mounted on a sleeve which is spline mounted on the left shaft assembly. If there is a failure, the sleeve and left drum can connect through a lost motion device. The lost motion device permits connection after a control wheel rotation of 7.8 degrees in either direction
43. Aileron system backdrive actuator attach to?
a.R and L shaft assemblies
44. Roll trim actuator authority on control wheel rotation is?
a.30o in either direction
45. On a stationary aircraft, when the power of the engine is increased to take off thrust the flaperon?
a. droop under its own weight
The photographer and The flying instructor
The photographer for a national magazine was assigned to get photos of a great forest fire. Smoke at the scene was too thick to get any good shots, so he frantically called his home office to hire a plane.
'It will be waiting for you at the airport!' he was assured by his editor.
As soon as he got to the small, rural airport, sure enough, a plane was warming up near the runway. He jumped in with his equipment and yelled, 'Let's go! Let's go!' The pilot swung the plane into the wind and soon they were in the air.
'Fly over the north side of the fire,' said the photographer, 'and make three or four low level passes.'
'Why?' asked the pilot.
'Because I'm going to take pictures! I'm a photographer, and photographers take pictures!' said the photographer with great exasperation.
After a long pause the pilot said, 'You mean you're not my flying instructor.'
READ MORE
'It will be waiting for you at the airport!' he was assured by his editor.
As soon as he got to the small, rural airport, sure enough, a plane was warming up near the runway. He jumped in with his equipment and yelled, 'Let's go! Let's go!' The pilot swung the plane into the wind and soon they were in the air.
'Fly over the north side of the fire,' said the photographer, 'and make three or four low level passes.'
'Why?' asked the pilot.
'Because I'm going to take pictures! I'm a photographer, and photographers take pictures!' said the photographer with great exasperation.
After a long pause the pilot said, 'You mean you're not my flying instructor.'
Welcome
This blog was set up in August 2010 to assist me in my studies.
Anyone that wish to contribute questions or anything they feel is beneficial to others in aircraft maintenance and other things can do so by emailing the information to me at cowbearngong@gmail.com and i will happily add on their behalf.
